D1.4 Indirect Butt Qualtification Specimen

Date 06-07-2007 21:33

Can anybody tell me the reason why the ratio of BM MSTS to WM MSTS (roughly), by the equation in figure 6.5 Note 2 ties into the length of test specimen.
Once L1 is generated it is then tied intothe lenghth of specimen calculation in the first figure.
At least thats the way I read the requirement. Sure seems awful complicated for an indirect butt joint rebar weld for cripe sake.

By Duke

Date 06-11-2007 03:32

I asked a ? a while ago, along the same line, this thread...http://www.aws.org/cgi-bin/mwf/topic_show.pl?pid=58729;hl=#pid58729

By henri

Date 06-17-2007 00:51

I imagine that they developed an equation for strength of flare bevel groove weld based on the effective area(effective throat times length...figure 2.1) and allowable stress(see Table 2.1)....then equated this to allowable stength of rebar in force units....divided to get length of weld, and after reviewing experimental data, followed by discussions with a lot of give and take, they came up with an equation that was dimensionally correct.

Just winging it here. Wish someone who knew how they arrived at the equation will share some thoughts on this matter.